Assuming you buy a company for $10M with the following structure:
- 70% debt ($7M)
- 20% seller rollover ($2M)
- 10% sponsor equity ($1M)
In this example, what would be the equity ownership of the seller in the company post-close?
Option 1
- The seller will own 67% of the equity post-close ($2M / ($1M + $2m))
- The 20% rollover is only applied to the Equity Value and not the full Enterprise Value
Option 2
- The seller rolled over 20% of the enterprise value and will also own 20% of the equity value while you own 80% post-close
- You will finance only 80% of the enterprise value - making it a lot easier to take on debt (i.e., buying 80% of the business, but using 100% of the EBITDA to repay your debt)
- The seller's 20% equity ownership will be set at a minimum value of $2M in the negotiations, and will likely need a structure where you buy him out in 3-7 years at a fixed price (i.e., he'll have a put option, or you'll have a call)
What's the correct way to model the seller's rollover in a transaction?
Do sellers that rollover a % of the purchase price (EV) end up owning that same % of the equity? Or does that % need to be adjusted to reflect the pro-rate equity ownership once we lever up the company?
Been getting different opinions on this.