Hi all,

Reaching out to tap into the wisdom of this community. How the owner salary should be treated for SDE calculation, when the owner is 100% involved in the deal?

In the last 30 days, 3 deals i looked at, had SDE calculations where the owner(s) salary was added back, although the owners are 100% involved in the business, but no market wages for equivalent positions were considered to replace those positions. All these were with business brokers (not that sophisticated in my opinion), and when I mentioned that's not the right way to calculate SDE, you need to consider market wages to replace those positions (even if smaller amounts), they become defensive.

What should I do, is it even worth mentioning this? Why would they do this? What am I missing here?