I came across someone claiming to having consistently over funded deals (particularly LBO deals) and taking the difference as a fee for doing the deal. This individual is am owner-investor and targets companies with competent management already in place. He utilizes a combination of bank financing, mezz financing and seller notes. He then takes uses the overage to pay himself a closing fee. Has anyone successfully pulled this off?

From an advisor standpoint (banker, independent financier, lawyer), would you allow this? Or would the buyer have to put this in the "Goodwill" or "blue sky" of the deal?